Amenorrhoea Evaluation

On this page
  1. Direct answer
  2. What you must remember
  3. The progesterone challenge, step by step
  4. Where the marks hide
  5. Frequently asked questions
  6. Related topics

Direct answer

Pregnancy is the first cause to exclude in any amenorrhoea — the commonest cause of secondary amenorrhoea by far — before any hormone panel is drawn: secondary amenorrhoea means no menses for three months in a previously regular cycle (six if irregular), and primary amenorrhoea means no menarche by 15 years with secondary sexual characteristics or 13 years without them. The first-line bloods are TSH and prolactin, plus FSH and oestradiol when chronic anovulation or ovarian failure is suspected; the progesterone challenge test then maps the uterus-outflow axis: medroxyprogesterone 10 mg daily for 5-7 days, and a withdrawal bleed confirms oestrogen-present, outflow-patent anovulation (polycystic ovary syndrome the leading answer), while no bleed prompts the combined oestrogen-progestin challenge — still no bleed means uterine or outflow pathology (Asherman syndrome, imperforate hymen, MRKH), whereas a bleed confirms hypo-oestrogenism, split by FSH: high FSH means ovarian failure (premature ovarian insufficiency, Turner), low or normal FSH means hypothalamic-pituitary causes (weight loss, exercise, prolactinoma, Sheehan).

What you must remember

  • Definitions: primary — no menarche by 15 with secondary sexual characteristics (or by 13 without, or within three years of thelarche failing); secondary — three months absent in regular cyclers, six in irregular.
  • Step one, always: pregnancy test — urine hCG — before anything else in secondary amenorrhoea; lactational amenorrhoea and perimenopause also sit in the "physiological" basket before pathology is chased.
  • First-line bloods: TSH (both hypo- and hyperthyroidism amenorrhoea), serum prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia suppresses GnRH; grossly raised values demand pituitary MRI), FSH with oestradiol.
  • Progesterone challenge: medroxyprogesterone acetate 10 mg daily x 5-7 days (or micronised progesterone 200 mg x 10 days) — withdrawal bleed within 7 days of stopping means adequate endogenous oestrogen and a patent outflow, with anovulation (most often PCOS) as the mechanism.
  • No bleed to progesterone: give oestrogen-progestin; bleeding now means the outflow and endometrium are fine but endogenous oestrogen was lacking; still no bleed means uterine or outflow failure — hysteroscopy for Asherman (history of curettage), examination for imperforate hymen or transverse septum, and ultrasound or MRI for Müllerian agenesis (MRKH — primary amenorrhoea with normal 46XX karyotype and absent uterus).
  • FSH interpretation in hypo-oestrogenism: high FSH (with low oestradiol) — ovarian: premature ovarian insufficiency (below 40 years; FSH above 25-30 on two occasions), Turner 45X in primary amenorrhoea with short stature; low or normal FSH — central: hypothalamic (weight loss, athlete's triad, stress, chronic illness) or pituitary (prolactinoma, Sheehan syndrome with failure of lactation postpartum).
  • Hyperprolactinaemia sources: prolactinoma, drugs (antipsychotics, metoclopramide, opioids), hypothyroidism (TRH stimulation) — treat cause or with dopamine agonists (cabergoline, bromocriptine).
  • PCOS numbers: Rotterdam two of three — oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovarian morphology — with the LH:FSH ratio above 2 an older supporting clue the exam still quotes.

The progesterone challenge, step by step

Run the algorithm on a 27-year-old with nine months of absent menses, negative pregnancy test, normal TSH, and prolactin of 18 ng/mL. Day one to seven: medroxyprogesterone 10 mg nightly. Five days after the last tablet she reports a normal three-day bleed — oestrogen is present, the endometrium responds, the outflow works; the defect is ovulation, and the phenotype (hirsutism, BMI 29, 12-plus follicles per ovary on scan) closes the diagnosis as PCOS: lifestyle change, cyclical progestins or a combined pill, metformin where needed, fertility counselling later.

Rerun the algorithm with no bleed after progesterone. A two-month combined oestrogen-progestin course follows, and this time she does bleed — the anatomy is intact, the deficiency was oestrogen; FSH returns 68 mIU/mL with oestradiol 12 pg/mL in a 27-year-old: premature ovarian insufficiency, mandating karyotype, bone-density protection and hormone replacement until natural menopause age. Rerun once more with no bleed despite oestrogen: the uterus or its exit is at fault — her history of postpartum curettage points to Asherman syndrome, confirmed by hysteroscopy and treated by adhesiolysis with oestrogen therapy and a balloon stent. Three women, one test, three destinations — uterine, ovarian, central — which is precisely why this algorithm anchors the topic.

Where the marks hide

Recall questions live in the definitional numbers (15 and 13 years; 3 and 6 months) and in the challenge-test logic — "bleeds after progesterone" means oestrogen present (so FSH is not the emergency), "fails both progesterone and oestrogen" means uterine-outflow disease. Turner (45X, primary amenorrhoea, short stature, streak gonads, high FSH) versus MRKH (46XX, absent uterus, normal breasts, normal FSH) is the classic primary-amenorrhoea discrimination; Sheehan versus prolactinoma is the central pair — Sheehan's signature is postpartum lactation failure.

Frequently asked questions

What defines primary versus secondary amenorrhoea?

Primary: no menarche by 15 years with secondary sexual characteristics or 13 without; secondary: no menses for three months in a woman with regular cycles (six months if cycles were irregular).

What does a withdrawal bleed after the progesterone challenge indicate?

Adequate endogenous oestrogen, a responsive endometrium and a patent outflow — the cause is chronic anovulation, most commonly polycystic ovary syndrome.

How is failure to bleed after both progesterone and oestrogen interpreted?

Uterine or outflow tract pathology — Asherman syndrome, Müllerian agenesis or obstruction — requiring hysteroscopy, examination and imaging rather than more hormones.

What does a high FSH with low oestradiol signify in a woman under 40?

Premature ovarian insufficiency — confirmed on repeat testing, with karyotype and autoimmune screening, and hormone replacement to protect bone and cardiovascular health.

Which two hormones are the first-line tests in secondary amenorrhoea after pregnancy is excluded?

TSH and serum prolactin, since thyroid disease and hyperprolactinaemia both suppress GnRH pulsatility and are eminently treatable.

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